Vijaya Bank Head Office Address:
41/2, M G Road,
BANGALORE – 560 001.

How to Apply:
Candidates apply online fore the Vijaya Bank Clerical recruitment 2009. You have to go through Vijaya Bank website for online application. Online registration starts from September 10th 2009 and last date of registration is October 1st, 2009. After applying on-line, the registered candidates should obtain a print out of the Computer Generated OnLine Application ,complete in all respects should be sent by ordinary post only in a closed envelope super scribed Print Out For The Post Of Probationary Clerks 2009 Vijaya Bank to the following address :

Vijaya Bank Recruitment Project – 2009 (Probationary Clerks),
Post Box No.8218 Dahisar (East),
Mumbai – 400068

The Total Vacancies: The Probationary Clerk are 500 Posts

Pay Scale: Rs.4410 – Rs.13210

Age Limit: 18 – 28 years

Desired: Pass with minimum 50% marks in aggregate in Higher Secondary Examination / 10+2 of 10+2+3 pattern or its equivalent from a recognized University / Board / Central /State/UT Administration. (OR) Degree in any discipline or its equivalent from a recognized University / Board / Central / State / UT Administration.

Application fee: Rs.300/- (Rs.50/- for SC/ST/PWD) should be paid by Demand Draft/Pay Order favouring ” Vijaya Bank Recruitment Project-2009 Payable at Mumbai only . Candidate’s name, post code and date of birth should be written on the reverse of the Demand Draft/Pay Order.

http://vijayabank.com/vijaya/vijaya/internet-en/menus/announcements/NoticeRecruClerks2009.html

Important Dates :
1. Last Date For Receipt Of Filled in Application : 11.07.2009
2. Last Date Of Receipt Of Application from Remote Areas : 18.07.2009
3. Tentative Date Of Written Examination : 06.09.2009

Job Profile(Scale) – Vacancies :
Senior Manager (MMGS-III) : 50 posts
Senior Manager (MMGS-II) : 100 posts
Manager (Risk Management) (MMGS-II) : 15 posts
Manager (Forex) (MMGS-II) : 50 posts
Manager (IT) (MMGS-II) : 75 posts
Manager (Technical) (MMGS-II) : 50 posts
Assistant Manager (Personnel) (JMGS-I) : 25 posts
Assistant Manager (Law) (JMGS-I) : 25 posts
Assistant Manager (Rural Development) (JMGS-I) : 300 posts
Assistant Manager (Marketing) (JMGS-I) : 200 posts

Application Fee rint Fee Challan form from website, fill it and deposite fee of Rs.300 (There is no fee for SC/ST/Disabled persons) in any branch of Union Bank of India. Keep receipt with yourself to be shown at the time of interview.

Head Office Address:Union Bank Recruitment Project – 2009
Post Office Box No. 8240,
Dahisar East Post Office,
Mumbai-400068

http://www.unionbankofindia.co.in/UserFiles/REC%202009%20NOTIFICATION.pdf

Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Ltd. (DMRC) is a Joint Venture of Govt. of India and Govt. of Delhi. Delhi Metro Rail Corporation invites applications from young, dynamic and motivated persons of Indian nationality for the following category of posts in DMRC.

* Account Assistant : 18 posts Pay Scale : Rs.5000-175-7625/-
* Customer Relations Assistant (CRA) : 318 posts Pay Scale : Rs.5000-175-7625/-
* Maintainer : 961 posts Pay Scale : Rs.3900-150-6150
* Stores Assistant : 03 posts Pay Scale : Rs.5000-175-7625
* Fire Inspector : 03 posts Pay Scale : Rs.6200-9575

Application Fee : Demand Draft for Rs.300/- for General & OBC candidates and for Rs.50/- for SC & ST candidates drawn only on State Bank of India in favour of Delhi Metro Rail corporation Limited, payable at Service Branch, New Delhi (Code No-7687) indicating on the reverse of the DD, their name & address, e-mail, telephone no. if any.

How To Apply : Application in prescribed format latest by 19/10/2009 through ordinary post addressed to DMRC Ltd., Post Bag No- 9, Lodhi Road, New Delhi-110003. The filled up application should be sent in the envelope super scribing on it prominently – “Post Code, Name of Post”.

For any further information or grievance regarding recruitment please contact:Shri S.K. Sinha IRPS,Additional General Manager(Recruitment & Training),DMRC at Tel no. 011- 23417910/ 23417911/ 23417912 , Extension- 34798 ( Rectt. Cell )

Source: http://www.delhimetrorail.com/commuters/recruitment.html

BSNL – Bharat Sanchar Nigam Ltd is leading telecommunication company of India. BSNL has recently took the BSNL JTO-Junior Telecom. Officers Exam for Engineering Student for BSNL Engineering post. JTO Exam of BSNL has been conducted as per BSNL’s website (www.bsnl.co.in) has decided.

Now It’s time to get the BSNL JTO Exam Paper Solutions and BSNL JTO Answer Keys 2009.
Student who appers for BSNL JTO 2009 can now get the BSNL JTO 2009 Answer Keys and BSNL JTO Paper Solution 2009.

Click Here to Download The Answer Key

Expected Minimum Cutoff for JTO 2009 Exam
i) For ST- Cutt-off – 40-45 Marks out of 180 Marks
ii) For SC- Cutt-off -45-50 Marks out of 180 Marks
iii) For OBC- Cutt-off – 50-55 Marks out of 180 Marks
iv) For OC- Cutt-off – 60-65 Marks out of 180 Marks

Source: CENTURIA ACADEMY, Trichy TN.

Answer sheet

3.The output voltage of the circuit shown in the given figure is
a) -10.2 V
b) -8.8V
c) zero
d) 0.2V

5.Consider the following statements:
Stagger tuning is used
1. to obtain sharp fall in the frequency response
2. to obtain a wider pass band
3. in the IF amplifiers of radio receivers
Of these statements:
a) 1 alone is correct
b) 1 and 3 are correct
c) 2 alone is correct
d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

6. Match the following:
List – I List-II
(Name of the electronic circuit) (Special characteristic)
A. Darlington amplifier 1. Low input impedance
B. Cascade amplifier (FET) 2. Low output impedance
C. Common gate amplifier 3. Low input capacitance but high Rin
D. Differential amplifier 4. Large common mode rejection

a) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 b) A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3
c) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4 d) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4

7. Match the following:
List – I List-II
(Amplifier type) (Circuit/property)
A. Class A single ended 1. Requires PNP & NPN transistor pairs
B. Class B pushpull transformer coupled 2. Prevents cross-over distortion
C. Class AB push-pull 3. Has maximum efficiency amongst these amplifiers
D. Class AB complementary symmetry 4. Has minimum efficiency amongst these amplifiers

a) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1 b) A-4 B-2 C-3 D-1
c) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 d) A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4

8. A 24 V, 600 mW Zener diode is be used for providing a 24V stabilitzed supply to a variable load. Assume that for proper Zener action, a minimum of 10mA must flow through the Zener. If the a) input voltage is 32V. What would be the value of R and the maximum load current?
a) 320 ?, 10 mA
b) 400 ?, 15 mA
c) 400 ?, 10 mA
d) 320 ?, 15 mA

9. Consider the following statements:
Monolithic regulators can be used to
1. realize a constant voltage regulator
2. realize a constant current regulator
3. introduce flexibility in setting output voltage level.
Of these statements
a) 1 and 2 are correct b) 1 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct d) 1 , 2 and 3 ae correct

13. Consider the following statements:
A clamper circuit
1. adds or subtracts a dc voltage to or from a waveform
2. does not change the shape of the waveform
3. amplifies the waveform
a) 1 and 2 are correct b) 1 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

14. Match the following:
List – I List-II
(Amplifier type) (Circuit/property)
A. RC coupling 1. Higher voltage gain and impedance matching
B. Inductive coupling 2. Ability to amplify dc and low frequency signals
C. Transformer coupling 3. Minimum possible non-linear distortion
D. Direct coupling 4. Low collector supply voltage can be used

a) A-4 B-1 C-3 D-2 b) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
c) A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4 d) A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1

15. Consider the following statements:
The 555 timer can be employed in
1. a monostable multivibrator
2. a bistable multivibrator
3. an astable multivibrator
Of the statements
a) 1 and 2 are correct b) 1 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

1. In a transmission line terminated with a load equal to the characteristic impedance, the reflection coefficient is
a) + 1 b) ? 1 c) 0 d) ?
2. Short circuited stubs are preferred to open-circuited stubs because the latter are
a) more difficult to make and correct
b) made of a transmission line with a different ZO
c) liable to radiate
d) incapable of giving a full range of reactance
3. For electromagnetic waves traveling in free space, the power carried by the waves changes with distance ?d? in proportion to
a) d b) 1/d c) 1/d2 d) d2
4. Decibel is a logarithmic unit expressing
a) noise levels b) current c) voltage d) power ratio
5. Input impedance of a shorted lossless line of length ? / 4 is
a) 0 b) 1 c) ZO d) ?
6. On a transmission line withstanding waves, the distance between a voltage maxima and adjacent current maxima is
a) ? / 4 b) ? / 8 c) ? / 4 d) ?
7. Stub matching eliminates standing waves on
a) load side b) transmitter side c) both sides of stub d) none
8. Electromagnetic waves are reflected back by ionosphere due to their interaction with
a) Electrons d) Protons c) Ultra-violet rays d) Neutrons
9. For a transmission line with ?L << R and ?C << G, attenuation constant ? is
a) proportional to frequency b) constant
c) inversely proportional to frequency d) proportional to velocity
10. When power ratios are expressed in dbm, the reference power is
a) 1 W b) 1 mW c) 1 ?W d) 1 MW
11. In a distortion less line, attenuation constant is
a) directly proportional to frequency b) inversely proportional to frequency
c) independent of frequency d) independent of primary constants
12. Impedance matching over wide frequency range can be obtained by using
a) double stubs b) single stubs c) quarter wave transformer d) none
13. Loading is used in cables to
a) reduce distortion b) increase power handling capacity
c) increase load resistance d) increase distortion
14. Input impedance of an open circuited loss-less line of length ? is
a) infinity b) finite capacitive reactance
c) finite inductive reactance d) zero
15. A matching stub should be
a) nearest to load b) nearest to transmission end
c) mid-way between both d) anywhere between two
16. If the spacing between the wires of a transmission line is increased, its characteristic impedance will
a) increase b) decrease c) is unchanged d) none
17. For a transmission line with ?L >> R and ?C >> G, propagation constant ? is
a) ? b) ?2 c) d) 0
18. The reflection coefficient on a lossless transmission line
a) is always purely imaginary b) is always purely real
c) is always complex d) can be anyway
19. There will be no reflection in an transmission line if it is terminated by an impedance
a) equal to characteristic impedance
b) less than the characteristic impedance
c) equal to twice the characteristic impedance
d) equal to square root of its characteristic impedance
20. Among the following lines, the simplest one to construct is
a) strip line b) microstrip line c) coaxial cable d) optical fibre
21.The unit of magnetic field of electromagnetic radiation at any point is usually expressed in
a) ampere/metres b) volts/metre c) watts/metre d) watt/metre2
22. The intrinsic impedance of free space is
a) 50 ohms b) 377 ohms c) 73 ohms d) 83 ohms
23. The velocity of electromagnetic waves in a dielectric (? = 4) is
a) 3 x 108 m/sec b) 1.5 x 108 m/sec c) 6 x 108 m/sec d) 2 x 108 m/sec
24. The propagation constant of a transmission line is
a) b)
c) d)

25. The induction field of a short current element varies as
a) b) c) d)
26. The guide wavelength in a rectangular waveguide in TE10 mode is
a) greater than free-space wavelength b) less than free-space wavelength
c) equal to free-space wavelength d) double the free-space wavelength
27. The dominant mode in a cylindrical wavelength is
a) TM11 b) TE11 c) TE10 d) TM10
28. The MKS unit for ? is
a) farads per square metre b) farads per metre
c) henrys per metre d) henrys per square metre
29. If the frequency is 10 MHz, the wavelength of a plane electromagnetic wave in free space will be
a) 30 metres b) 100 metres c) 60 metres d) 90 meters
30. The velocity of EM waves in free-space with respect to that in an RF cable with air dielectric is
a) increased b) decreased c) unchanged d) none
31. The propagation constant in a lossless line is given by
a) b) c) j? d)
32. VSWR in a short-circuited line equals
a) infinity b) unity c) zero d) none
33. A rectangular waveguide is
a) resonant circuit b) high pass filter
c) low pass filter d) band pass filter
34. The intrinsic impedance of free space is
a) 1 ohm b) 4 ohms c) 120 ohms d) 3 x 108 ohms
35. In a rectangular waveguide, the phase velocity
a) increase with increasing frequency b) decrease with increasing frequency
c) is independent of frequency d) none of these
36. A (75 ? j 50) load is connected to a coaxial transmission line of ZO = 75 ohms at 10 GHz, the best method of matching consists in connecting
a) a short-circuited stub at the load
b) an inductance at the load
c) a capacitance at some specific distance from the load
d) a short-circuited stub at some specific distance from the load
37. To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, it is best to use a
a) slotted line b) balun
c) directional coupler d) quarter wave transformer
38. In rectangular waveguides
a) vg vp = c2 b) vg vp = 1 c) vg vp = 2c2 d) vg = vp
39. A microstrip transmission line is
a) a thin metal strip placed within a waveguide
b) a thin metal strip placed within a circular coaxial line
c) a thin metal strip placed on a dielectric with a ground plane
d) a transmission line consisting of two parallel thin metal strips
40. Waveguide impedance ZO of a rectangular waveguide for TE10 mode is
a) directly proportional to the width of the guide
b) inversely proportional to the width of the guide
c) does not depend on the width of the guide
d) directly proportional to double the width of the guide
41. ZO of a parallel wire transmission line______ with increase in distance between the conductors.
a) increases b) decreases
c) does not change d) none of these
42. The characteristic impedance ZO equals
a) ZOC / ZSC b) ZSC / ZOC c) (ZSC / ZOC)? d) (ZSC.ZOC)?
43. A Smith chart is used for solving
a) propagation problems b) transmission problems
c) antenna problems d) attenuation problems
44. To specify a mode in rectangular a rectangular waveguide, its electric field has to be defined in
a) one axis b) two axes c) three axes d) four axes
45. If a loss less line of 50 ohms terminated in a load Zl has VSWR = 2.0 and the voltage maxima occurs with the load, the Zl is
a) 25 ohms b) 50 ohms c) 100 ohms d) 150 ohms
46. A lossless line will be distortion less if the phase shift constant
a) is constant with frequency
b) varies directly with frequency
c) varies inversely with frequency
d) has nothing to do with distortion on a lossless line.

Mark the wrong statements in the following:

47. The VSWR of a transmission line is infinity, the line is terminated in
a) a complex impedance b) open line c) a pure reactance d) short line
48. When an ideal transmission line is terminated in its character impedance, the first minimum is formed at the load end.
49. Transmission lines can be used for impedance matching.
50. Loading of cables reduces transmission loss.
51. Propagation in waveguides is below the critical frequency and independent of waveguide dimensions.
52. A rectangular waveguide supports TEM mode.
53. The input impedance of an infinite transmission line is equal to Characteristic impedance ZO.
54. A loaded coil behaves like a low pass filter.

2. The term PSW Program Status word refers
a) Accumulator & Flag register
b) H and L register
c) Accumulator & Instruction register
d) B and C register

3. In 8085 the MAR, or ?.. register, latches the address from the program counter. A bit later the MAR applies this address to the ??, where a read operations performed
a) Memory address, ROM
b) Memory address, RAM
c) Memory address, PROM
d) Memory address EPROM

4. In micro ? processors like 8080 and the 8085, the ?..cycle may have from one to live machine cycle
a) micro ? instruction
b) source program
c) instruction
d) fetch cycle

5. Repeated addition is one way to do multiplication, programmed multiplication is used in most microprocessors because
a) that ALU?s can only add and subtract
b) this saves on memory
c) a separate set of instructions is needed for the two
d) None of the above.

6. A —— is used to isolate a bit, it does this because that ANI sets all other bits to Zero
a) subroutine
b) flag
c) label
d) mask

7. Interaction between a CPU and a peripheral device that takes place during and imput output operation is known as
a) handshaking
b) flagging
c) relocating
d) sub?routine

8. Addressing in which the instructions contains the address of the data to the operated on is known as
a) immediate addressing
b) implied addressing
c) register addressing
d) direct addressing

9. Resart is a special type of CALL in which
a) the address is programmed but not built into the hardware
b) the address is programmed built into the hardware
c) the address is not programmed but built into the hardware
d) None of the above

10. 8085 has ?? software restarts and ?.. hardware restarts
a) 10, 5
b) 8,4
c) 7,5
d) 6,6

11. Serial input data of 8085 can be loaded into bit 7 of the accumulator by
a) executing a RIM instruction
b) executing RST1
c) using TRAP
c) None of the above

12. The address to which a software or hardware restart branches is known as
a) vector location
b) SID
c) SOD
d) TRAP

13. TRAP is ?..whereas RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5 are?.
a) maskable, non maskable
b) maskable, maskable
c) non – maskable, non ? maskable
d) non – maskable, maskable

14. micro processor with a 16 ? bit address bus is used in a linear memory selection configuration address bus lines are directly used as chip selects of memory chips with four memory chips. The maximum addressable memory space is
a) 64K
b) 16 K
c) 8K
d) 4K
15. How many outputs are there in the output of a 10-bit D/A converter?
a) 1000
b) 1023
c) 1024
d) 1224

16. The stack is a specialized temporary ?? access memory during ?.. and ?? instructions
a) random, store, load
b) random, push, load
c) sequential, store, pop
d) sequential, push, pop

17. The memory address of the last location of a 1K byte memory chip is given as OFBFFH what will be the address of the first location ?
a) OF817H
b) OF818H
c) OF8OOH
d) OF801H

18. What is the direction of address bus ?
a) Uni ? directional into microprocessors
b) Uni ? directional out of microprocessors
c) Bi ? directional
d) mixed direction is when lines into micro processor and some other out of micro
processes.

19. The No. of control lines are ——-

20. The length of A ? register is ——- bits

21. The length of program counter is ——– bits

22. The length of stack pointer is ——– bits

23. The length of status word is ——- bits

24. The length of temporary register ——- bits

25. The length of Data buffer register ——- bits

26. The No. of flags are ——-

27. The No. of interrupts are ——-

28. The memory word addressing capability is —— K

29. The No. of input output ports can be accessed by direct method ——-

30. The No. of input output ports can be accessed by memory mapped method —— K

31. If instruction RST is written in a program the program will jump ——- location.

32. When TRAP interrupt is triggered program control is transferred to ——- location.

33. The RST 5.5 interrupt service routine start from ——– location.

34. What is the purpose of using ALE signal high ?
a) To latch low order address from bus to separate A0 ? A7
b) To latch data Do ? D 7 from bus go separate data bus
c) To disable data bus latch

35. What is the purpose of READY signal?
a) It is used to indicate to user that microprocessor is working and ready to use
b) It is used to provide for proper WAIT states when microprocessor is communicating with slow peripheral device.
c) It is used to provide for proper showing down of fast peripheral devices so as to communicate at micro processors speed.

36. What is the addressing mode used in instruction MOV M, C?
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Indexed
d) Immediate

37. In 8085 the direction of address business is
a)bidirectional
b)unidirectional out of MP
c)unidirectional int MP
d)none of the above

38. In 8085 the hardware interrupts are
a)TRAP,RST 6.5,RST 7.5, RST 5.5 and INTR
b)RST o, RST 1?..RST 7
c)both a b
d)none of the above

39. In the TRAP, RST 7.5, RST 6.5, RST 5.5, which is having top priority
a)TRAP
b)RST 7.5
c)RST 6.5
d)RST 5.5
40.In 8085 the no . of software interrupts are
a) 8
b)7
c)5
d)4

41. In the following interrupts which is the non-vectored interrupt
a)TRAP
b)INTR
c)RST 7.5
d)RST 6.5

42. Vector address for the TRAP interrupt is
a)0024 H
b)003C H
c)0034 H
d)002C H

43. In the following interrupt which is non-maskable interrupt
(a) Rst7.5
b) Rst 6.5
c) TRAP
d) INTR

44. Vector location Address for RST O Instruction is inflex
(a) ooooH
b) ooo8H
c) oo1oH
d)oo18H

45. In 8085 the Interput Acknowledge is represended by _______
(a) INTA
b)INTA
c) INTR
d) none of the above

46. The maximum number of I\o devices can be interfaced with 8085 in the I\o mapped I\o technique are
a) 128
b) 256
c) 64
d) 1024

47. The maximum number of I\o devices which can be interfaced in the memory mapped I\o technique are
a) 256
b) 128
c) 65536
d) 32768

48. Shadow Address will exist in
a) absolute decoding
b) linear decoding
c) partical decoding
d) none of the above

49. The Instructions used for data transfer in I\o mapped I\O are
a) IN, OUT
b) IN, LDA add
c) STA add
d) None of the above

50. Number of Address lines required to interface 1KB of memory are
a) 10
b)11
c) 12
d) 13